STUPIDSID
VTU First Year Engineering (P Cycle) (Semester 2)
Constitution of India & Professional Ethics
December 2014
Constitution of India & Professional Ethics
December 2014
1
Which one of these is the primary source of India Constitution?
(a) British Constitution
(b) Irish Constitution
(c) Goverment of India Act, 1935
(d) U.S. Constistution
(a) British Constitution
(b) Irish Constitution
(c) Goverment of India Act, 1935
(d) U.S. Constistution
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2
Who acted as the Chaiman of the Drafting Commitee of the Constiturent Assembly?
(a) DR. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) B.C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) DR. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) B.C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
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3
In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Arctilces and Schedules were there?
(a) 397 Articles and 7 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles 4 Schedules
(c) 400 Articles and 10 Schedules
(d) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.
(a) 397 Articles and 7 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles 4 Schedules
(c) 400 Articles and 10 Schedules
(d) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.
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4
The premble of the Indian Constitution does not contain
(a) Democratic
(b) Adult Franchise
(c) Sovereignty
(d) Fratemity.
(a) Democratic
(b) Adult Franchise
(c) Sovereignty
(d) Fratemity.
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5
The Emergency provisions incorporate in the Indian Constitution were influenced by the Constitution of
(a) U.S.A.
(b) German Reich
(c) Russia
(d) Canada
(a) U.S.A.
(b) German Reich
(c) Russia
(d) Canada
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6
Cultural and Educational Rights have been incorporated under Fundamental Rights with the objective to
(a) Preserve Indian culture
(b) Evolve a single culcture
(c) Eradicate illiteracy
(d) Help minorities to conserve their culture.
(a) Preserve Indian culture
(b) Evolve a single culcture
(c) Eradicate illiteracy
(d) Help minorities to conserve their culture.
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7
Dr. B.R. Ambedlar termed Article 32 of the Indian Constitution as the "Heat and Soul" of the Indian Constitution. Which one of the following Fundamental Right it contains?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to freedom of religion
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to freedom of religion
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8
Prohibition of discrimination of grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is a fundamental right classifiable under
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right against explotiation
(c) Right to equality
(d) None of these
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right against explotiation
(c) Right to equality
(d) None of these
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9
Which fundamental right of Indian Constitution has been deleted by 44th Amendment Act, 1978?
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to strike and protest
(d) Right to speak
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to strike and protest
(d) Right to speak
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10
Write of Mandamus can be issued on the ground of
(a) Non-performance of public duties
(b) Unlawful detention
(c) Unlawful occupation of public office
(d) None of these
(a) Non-performance of public duties
(b) Unlawful detention
(c) Unlawful occupation of public office
(d) None of these
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11
Protection of wild life comes under which of the following in India?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principle of State policy
(d) None of these
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principle of State policy
(d) None of these
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12
Which of the following is enforceble in a Court of Law?
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental duties
(d) Directive of State Policy
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental duties
(d) Directive of State Policy
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13
Fundamental duties appearing in India Constitution are adopted from the Construction of
(a) Germany
(b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A
(d) Russia
(a) Germany
(b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A
(d) Russia
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14
Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Free legal to poor
(b) Maternity relief
(c) Improvement of public health
(d) None of these
(a) Free legal to poor
(b) Maternity relief
(c) Improvement of public health
(d) None of these
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15
Which of the following is a Fundamental duty of the Indian citizen?
(a) Strive to eradicate untouchability
(b) To cast his/her vote
(c) To develop scientic temper
(d) To promotic literacy
(a) Strive to eradicate untouchability
(b) To cast his/her vote
(c) To develop scientic temper
(d) To promotic literacy
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16
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Minister of Parliamentry Affairs.
(a) President
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Minister of Parliamentry Affairs.
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17
The Judge of the Supreme Court of India now retire at the age of
(a) 60 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 65 years
(a) 60 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 65 years
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18
How many members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 20
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 20
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19
In the Union Government the Council of Minister is collectively responsible of the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Lok sabha
(d) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Lok sabha
(d) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
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20
When both offices of the President and Vice-President happen to be vacant simultaneously who will discharge the duties of the President?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Union Home Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Union Home Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
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21
A person to be appointed as Govermor of a State must have complete the age of
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 50 years
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 50 years
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22
Who acts as the channel of communication between the Governor and the State Council of Ministers?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister
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23
A judge of High Court when he wants to resign should address his resignation letter to the
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Minister of the State
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Minister of the State
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24
The interval between two consecutive sessions of a State Legislative Assembly should nor be more than
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
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25
Who decides the disputes regarding election of the President?
(a) The Electron Commission
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Prime Minister
(a) The Electron Commission
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Prime Minister
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26
Decision on question as to disqualifications of membership of either house of Parliament rests with the
(a) Election Commision
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Parliament
(d) President after Consulation with the Election Commision
(a) Election Commision
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Parliament
(d) President after Consulation with the Election Commision
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27
The Chief Election Commisioner holds office for a period of
(a) 3 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years
(a) 3 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years
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28
Election Commision of India does not conduct election to
(a) State Legislature
(b) Vice-President
(c) Municipalties
(d) Rajya Sabha
(a) State Legislature
(b) Vice-President
(c) Municipalties
(d) Rajya Sabha
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29
The procedure for amending the Consitution is detailed under
(a) Article 360
(b) Article 368
(c) Article 352
(d) Article 301
(a) Article 360
(b) Article 368
(c) Article 352
(d) Article 301
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30
Which Constitutional Amendment Act limits the size of the Council of Ministers in the Union Government including Prime Minister to not more thatn 15% of the membership strength of Lok Sabha?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 91th Amendment Act
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 91th Amendment Act
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31
Mandal Commision deals with
(a) Rights of the minority
(b) Laws relating to sexual harassment
(c) Reservation for backward class people
(d) Laws relating to child labour
(a) Rights of the minority
(b) Laws relating to sexual harassment
(c) Reservation for backward class people
(d) Laws relating to child labour
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32
At present, how many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha?
(a) 100 and 50
(b) 79 and 40
(c) 89 and 45
(d) 70 and 30
(a) 100 and 50
(b) 79 and 40
(c) 89 and 45
(d) 70 and 30
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33
National Commission for women was establishment in the year
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
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34
National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have to submit their annual reports on the working of the safeguards to
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of India
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of India
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35
No child below the age of 14 years
(a) Shall be employed in any industry
(b) Shall be employed in any office
(c) Shall be employed in house-hold work
(d) Can be employed anywhere
(a) Shall be employed in any industry
(b) Shall be employed in any office
(c) Shall be employed in house-hold work
(d) Can be employed anywhere
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36
This is not a ground to declare National Emergency
(a) Serious Internal disturbance
(b) War
(c) External aggression
(d) Armed rebellion
(a) Serious Internal disturbance
(b) War
(c) External aggression
(d) Armed rebellion
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37
When the Sate Emergency is in operation, the President cannot interfere in the matters of
(a) State Executive
(b) State Legislature
(c) State Judiciary
(d) All of these
(a) State Executive
(b) State Legislature
(c) State Judiciary
(d) All of these
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38
Who is empowered to proclaim the Financial Emergency?
(a) Finance Minister of the Union Government
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
(a) Finance Minister of the Union Government
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
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39
Which one of the following is not the function of Muncipalties?
(a) Providing cattle ponds; prevention of cruelty to animals.
(b) Providing water supply for domestics, industrial and commercial purposes
(c) Ensuring uninterrupted electric power supply to homes
(d) Collecting property taxes.
(a) Providing cattle ponds; prevention of cruelty to animals.
(b) Providing water supply for domestics, industrial and commercial purposes
(c) Ensuring uninterrupted electric power supply to homes
(d) Collecting property taxes.
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40
Which one of the following is not the function of Gram Panchayats?
(a) Promotion of cottage industries
(b) Care of public tanks
(c) Supply of drinking water
(d) Primary Education
(a) Promotion of cottage industries
(b) Care of public tanks
(c) Supply of drinking water
(d) Primary Education
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41
Engineering ethics is
(a) A macro ethics
(b) Business ethics
(c) A preventive ethics
(d) A code of scientific rules based on ethics
(a) A macro ethics
(b) Business ethics
(c) A preventive ethics
(d) A code of scientific rules based on ethics
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42
Conflict of interest may be _______
(a) False
(b) Imaginary
(c) Created
(d) Potential
(a) False
(b) Imaginary
(c) Created
(d) Potential
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43
The codes of ethics can be taken as guidelines by Engineers to _______
(a) Overcome the work pressure
(b) Resolve the conflicts
(c) Formulate the problem
(d) Escape from the responsibility
(a) Overcome the work pressure
(b) Resolve the conflicts
(c) Formulate the problem
(d) Escape from the responsibility
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44
The uses of intellectual property of others without permission or credit is referred as
(a) Cooking
(b) Stealing
(c) Plagiarism
(d) Trimming
(a) Cooking
(b) Stealing
(c) Plagiarism
(d) Trimming
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45
Which of the following is not a concept of responsibility?
(a) Minimalist
(b) Maximalist
(c) Reasonable care
(d) Good works
(a) Minimalist
(b) Maximalist
(c) Reasonable care
(d) Good works
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46
The Fault Tree is used to
(a) Improve safety
(b) Assess the risk involved
(c) Take free consent
(d) Claim compensation
(a) Improve safety
(b) Assess the risk involved
(c) Take free consent
(d) Claim compensation
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47
An Expert Testimony does not demand _______
(a) Consulting extensively with the lawyer
(b) Adequate time for thorough investigation
(c) Expert leagal knowledge
(d) Objective and unbiased demeansor
(a) Consulting extensively with the lawyer
(b) Adequate time for thorough investigation
(c) Expert leagal knowledge
(d) Objective and unbiased demeansor
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48
What an engineer abuses Client-Professional confidentiality, it amounts to _______
(a) Misusing the truth
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Selft-deception
(d) None of these
(a) Misusing the truth
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Selft-deception
(d) None of these
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49
An author retains copy right of his/her book for _______ after his or her death
(a) 20 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 10 years
(a) 20 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 10 years
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50
The formula of MTR Sambar Masala is an example of
(a) Patent
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Trade secrete.
(a) Patent
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Trade secrete.
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